See: http://www.nytimes.com/2016/03/07/opinion/when-fallacies-collide.html?partner=rss&emc=rss
Dr. Krugman says : "In fact, a worldwide trade war would, by definition, reduce imports by exactly the same amount that it reduces exports."
This property of trade is a bit short on its
completeness. This is simply stating
that an export from one country is imported to another country. Such a tautology is necessary, but hardly
helpful in understanding trade. Unfortunately,
this leaves out the balance of trade of a single country, which is what is
really important to that country. The
problem is with what is advertised as “trade” actually is is not trade. Rather, it is a multi-currency purchase and
sale system where each country buys from another in its own currency which is
then exchanged for a global reserve currency, such as USD, and then exchanged
to the seller’s currency.
By this mechanism imports and exports of a country are
decoupled. A country can choose to
import and not export by simply making foreign purchases with currency. Or, in the opposite extreme, a country can
choose to export and not import by simply taking foreign currency for its
goods. More likely the trade is nearly
balanced, or goes off to one side for a period of time as with the US where it
imports more than it exports and has done so for decades.
But, what’s the long term effect of a trade imbalance? Don’t imports have to equal exports over the
long term? Why would a country continue
to sell to another for long periods of time, i.e. many decades, if it only gets
foreign currency for its products? What
would happen to a country that maintains a balance of trade deficit for
decades? Wouldn’t trading partner
nations simply stop selling to it after some time? Well, the US may soon be able to answer this
question.
So, what is wrong with moving toward a balance of trade by
imposing tariffs when trade imbalances exist for long periods of time? Wouldn’t that have the needed effect of
reducing imports to be more in line with exports?
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